Week 4 - Case File -Internal Medicine, Section - Gastrointestinal System, Case Study - Chronic Constipation Online Only
Discipline: Nursing
Type of Paper: Question-Answer
Academic Level: Undergrad. (yrs 3-4)
Paper Format: APA
Question
A 54-year-old woman presents to the clinic with mild intermittent and diffuse abdominal pain that she has had for many years. In the past, she states the pain has been worse when she has been constipated. The pain improved with a bowel movement or passing gas. Her current pain lasts a few seconds and then resolves on its own multiple times a day. She reports that her symptoms have worsened since her hip replacement two weeks ago. She typically has to squeeze very hard to have a bowel movement. Her last bowel movement was 4 days prior to presentation. She says that she is passing gas and denies any nausea, vomiting, or fevers at home. Her diet is variable, but she dislikes vegetables and admits that she frequents a local fast-food restaurant 2-3 times per week. Her medical history is significant for arthritis, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. She takes metformin, lisinopril, and amlodipine, and she has started to take oxycodone daily since her surgery. There is no family history of inflammatory bowel disease, but her father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 75. She has never had a colonoscopy before. On physical exam, the patient is in no acute distress and has a soft, distended abdomen that is tender to deep palpation throughout all 4 quadrants. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. A rectal exam demonstrates an external hemorrhoid, hard stools in the rectal vault, and no gross mass or bleeding. Fecal occult blood testing is negative.
Questions
What would be alarm signs and symptoms?
What is your next step in management?
Answers to Int Med Case 67: Chronic constipation
Summary: A 54-year-old woman presents with
Intermittent, colicky, mild diffuse abdominal pain that improves with bowel movements
No evidence of obstipation (inability to pass gas)
No peritoneal signs on abdominal exam
A negative fecal occult blood test
Never having a colonoscopy in the past
Most likely diagnosis: Chronic constipation exacerbated by narcotic use.
Alarm signs and symptoms: Failure to have a bowel movement, failure to pass gas, or the presence of peritoneal signs, bleeding, or microcytic anemia.
Next management step: Suggest tapering off her narcotics, start daily laxatives, and recommend fiber supplementation and more exercise. Assess for hypothyroidism. If symptoms persist, evaluate for inflammatory bowel syndrome-constipation (IBS-C). Additionally, given the patient’s age, a routine screening colonoscopy should be performed to rule out colon cancer.
Considerations
This 54-year-old woman has a long history of constipation symptoms that have worsened over the past 2 weeks since her hip replacement. Notably, the patient does not have any symptoms of bowel obstruction or alarm symptoms that may indicate a more serious problem. For example, the failure to have a bowel movement or pass gas would suggest a mechanical bowel obstruction and could be a surgical emergency. Peritoneal signs may be caused by diverticulitis, appendicitis, or inflammatory bowel disease. Colonic bleeding may indicate diverticulosis or colon cancer. Notably, microcytic anemia is one the most common presentations of colorectal cancer. This patient’s diet appears poor in fiber and may be a contributor of the constipation. The first steps in the management of this patient would include:
Reassurance that this is likely not a serious issue
Counseling toward decreasing opioids
Increasing fiber, water intake, and exercise
Checking the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level
Recommending a screening colonoscopy
Clinical Pearls
Constipation is defined as less than 3 bowel movements per week. Chronic constipation lasts for more than 3 months.
Patients with constipation who have “red flag” symptoms (eg, weight loss, evidence of bleeding, or anemia, sudden onset constipation) or who meet age-appropriate screening criteria should be referred for endoscopic examination.
Medications are common causes of constipation; a thorough medication reconciliation should be performed for all patients with constipation.
Opioids are a common cause of constipation and should be avoided when possible in patients prone to developing constipation.
When using laxatives, polyethylene glycol has the most evidence and thus should be used as a first-line medication when fiber supplementation fails.
Multiple therapies are typically required to treat chronic constipation. If patients fail initial therapy, referral to a gastroenterologist is appropriate for further management.
Question 1 of 4
A 25-year-old woman presents to your office with a chief complaint of abdominal pain of one month’s duration. She reports significant abdominal pain when she does not have bowel movements and improvement in pain when she defecates. She has frequent urges to go but is not able to defecate; she reports going to the bathroom 5-6 times a day. She is anxious about being a bridesmaid in an upcoming wedding because she is uncertain if she will be able to participate without running to the bathroom. She describes her stool as “hard and lumpy.” She denies any bleeding per rectum. She reports that her father had colon cancer at age 75. She also complains of abdominal pressure, bloating, and frequent burping, but she denies weight loss. Her stool sample is fecal occult blood negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Gastric ulcer
Irritable bowel syndrome, constipation subtype (IBS-C)
Irritable bowel syndrome, diarrhea subtype (IBS-D)
Colon cancer
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is B. You answered B.
B. IBS-C. This patient is a young lady who has abdominal pain that improves with defecation that has occurred for at least 1 year (more than 3 months) and has increased frequency of bowel movements, thus meeting criteria for IBS-C. A gastric ulcer (answer A) could certainly cause her dyspepsia symptoms, but this diagnosis would not explain the constipation and defecatory abdominal pain. Also, since the fetal occult stool is negative, peptic ulcer disease is less likely. IBS-D (answer C) is unlikely, given the absence of diarrhea. Colon cancer (answer D) should always be a consideration in anyone with chronic constipation; however, given her age, negative fecal occult blood test, and family history, colon cancer is less likely.
Question 2 of 4
A 26-year-old man comes into your office with complaints of constipation. He has had constipation for years, seen various physicians, and tried multiple medications and laxatives with no relief. He reports that he is having difficulty sleeping, has gained weight recently, and has worsening constipation. He also reports feeling depressed. His vital signs are notable for a heart rate of 55 beats per minute and blood pressure of 105/62 mm Hg. His neck shows no masses and no goiter. The abdomen is tender in the left upper quadrant, right lower quadrant, and epigastric region, although the tenderness is not reproducible. There is mild, non-pitting edema to the shins bilaterally. What is the best next step?
Order thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 levels.
Refer for further constipation evaluation.
Start treatment for IBS-C with linaclotide.
Start on sertraline and follow up in 6 weeks to evaluate treatment.
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is A. You answered A.
A. Order TSH and free T4 levels. This patient demonstrates multiple signs of hypothyroidism, including weight gain, depression, worsening constipation, and non-pitting edema in the shins. A goiter does not need to be present in hypothyroidism. Depression may be related to this patient’s symptoms; however, evaluation for hypothyroidism should be performed first before treating depression (answer D). Further constipation workup (answer B) may be necessary; however, secondary causes of constipation should be excluded before these expensive tests are performed. IBS-C criteria (answer C) have not been met yet.
Question 3 of 4
A 59-year-old man arrives at the hospital for acute abdominal pain and altered mental status. A computed tomography (CT) scan performed in the emergency department demonstrates a large, 10-cm fecalith obstructing the recto-sigmoid junction. The patient has been taking oxycodone daily for over two years for lower back pain; this medication is believed to have caused his altered mental status and fecalith. He is taken to the operating room, where the fecalith is removed under general anesthesia. What therapy could have prevented this patient’s condition?
Methylnaltrexone use
Giving a bowel regimen
Avoiding narcotics
All the above
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is D. You answered D.
D. All of the above. In general, all these interventions, most importantly avoiding narcotics (answer C), could have avoided this complication. Constipation can cause severe symptoms, including bowel obstruction and altered mental status. Patients who take narcotics should always have a bowel regimen added (answer B), particularly if they are starting to become constipated. This patient has back pain and likely has poor mobility at home that is contributing to his constipation. Methylnaltrexone (answer A) is an anti-opioid medication that prevents narcotics from slowing the bowel without preventing their systemic effects. It is approved to treat opioid-induced constipation and would have likely prevented this patient’s constipation.
Question 4 of 4
A 75-year-old man was diagnosed with functional constipation 4 weeks ago. He has recently tried to exercise more, has started eating more fiber, and is drinking more water. He comes back to the office and reports that his constipation is improving, but he is still having only two bowel movements per week and mild abdominal pain. He asks about a referral to a specialist. He had a colonoscopy 2 years ago that was normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Refer to a gastroenterologist for further workup.
Start polyethylene glycol daily.
Start senna daily.
Start bisacodyl daily.
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is B. You answered B.
B. Start polyethylene glycol daily. This patient has failed to respond to initial management for constipation; thus, his regimen should be broadened to include a laxative. Of the three laxatives listed, polyethylene glycol (PEG) has the best evidence basis and thus is likely to help. In the event that PEG does not help, senna (answer C) and bisacodyl (answer D) can be added. However, it may be necessary to perform more testing, assuming all secondary causes have been ruled out. This patient has not yet failed conservative management, and further referral (answer A) will be costly.
Reference
Rao, S. S. C., Rattanakovit, K., Patcharatrakul, T. (2016). Diagnosis and management of chronic constipation in adults, 1–11. http://doi.org.su.idm.oclc.org/10.1038/nrgastro.2016.53